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Thread: 1rm != 1rm

  1. #1
    More Experienced than a Senior decu68's Avatar
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    I noticed the exact same thing. You would think if you truly did 1 rep of something that it would register it as your 1 RM; not add additional weight. If I could have lifted that additional weight than I would have recorded it as such; and that isn't the case and I could only wish I could lift that much more.

  2. #2
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    Here is what I noticed. If I do 3 sets of Pull Ups with 6 six reps at a weight of 165lbs, the RM equals 198. 165 is 83.33% of 198. The 83.33% is the same no matter what exercise I do as long I as use 6 reps per set. It sounds like a Jefit algorithm, for what I am not sure. I thought you only had to be at 75% of your 1RM max to produce testosterone.

  3. #3
    I Am JEFIT Legend Deviation's Avatar
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    It's a calculation; not an exact measurement.
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  4. #4
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    But what does it mean?

  5. #5
    I Am JEFIT Legend Deviation's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by skootz View Post
    But what does it mean?
    Theoretical amount you could lift one time. Not much use if you're truly lifting your 1RM and record it.
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  6. #6
    Moderator OptikaNET's Avatar
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    Surely this depends? 1RM should be the MAXIMUM amount you can lift for one rep. If your routine has you ending with a single rep of a heavy weight after, for example, pyramiding sets, then the amount you lift for one rep will be LESS than your 1RM (which is what you would have been able to lift if it had been your first and only rep).

    Just being devils advocate here...

    Kind Regards
    Dave

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